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DrJones
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Wed Feb 27, 2002 1:32 pm Post subject: 1 |
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Maybe this is not the best place to post it, but I didn't know where to do it.
I was playing with my calculator, when I discovered that:
PI * Cos 30 +-= e
Do you know any better relation between "Pi" and "e"?
Is this an important thing, or just a curiosity?
GoodBye!
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ralphmerridew
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Wed Feb 27, 2002 1:34 pm Post subject: 2 |
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The best relation between pi and e is almost certainly
e^(i pi) == -1 |
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groza528
No Place Like Home
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Posted: Wed Feb 27, 2002 1:41 pm Post subject: 3 |
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| hehe, that's what I said in OT. It may get confusing to have to check two forums to read our responses though. |
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ZutAlors!
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Wed Feb 27, 2002 1:50 pm Post subject: 4 |
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And, incidentally, PI*cos(3) != e
PI*cos(30) = 2.720699046
e = 2.718281828
Close (within 99.9%), but with enough judicious playing with available constants, you can approximate nearly anything. |
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dave10000
Tinhorn
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Chuck
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Wed Feb 27, 2002 9:01 pm Post subject: 6 |
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12/5 + 1/pi = e
approximately. |
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GH
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Wed Feb 27, 2002 10:16 pm Post subject: 7 |
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e/pi * pi/e = 1
*exactly* |
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ralphmerridew
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Wed Feb 27, 2002 10:20 pm Post subject: 8 |
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| I think that e^(pi sqrt(163)) is very close to an integer (the difference is < 10^-12) |
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Griffin
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Wed Feb 27, 2002 10:23 pm Post subject: 9 |
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| .0009 * pi^7 ~ e |
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HyToFry
Drama queen
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Posted: Wed Feb 27, 2002 10:27 pm Post subject: 10 |
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| Griffen lives? |
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HappyMutant
Daedalian again
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Posted: Wed Feb 27, 2002 10:34 pm Post subject: 11 |
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Explain why e^(i*pi) = 1.
(It's fun. I did it in calculus when no one was looking...)
While you're at it, solve for i^(i).
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Brunch - you'll love it. It's not quite breakfast, it's not quite lunch; but it comes with a slice of cantaloupe at the end. |
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ralphmerridew
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Thu Feb 28, 2002 2:12 am Post subject: 12 |
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| That should be -1 in your post. |
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tigg
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Thu Feb 28, 2002 3:27 am Post subject: 13 |
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I think i^i is ambiguous.
for any integer k,
e^(-(4k+1)pi/2) = i^i. |
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mole
Subterranean Member
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Posted: Thu Feb 28, 2002 3:32 am Post subject: 14 |
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i ^ i = (e^(i.pi/2))^i
= e^i(i.pi/2)
= e^-pi/2 |
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groza528
No Place Like Home
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Posted: Thu Feb 28, 2002 5:17 pm Post subject: 15 |
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I proved last year that e^(pi*i)=-1. The easiest way to show it is to work backwards.
Upon learning about radians and polar notation I happened to noticed that cis(pi)=-1 (where cis(x)= cos(x)+i*sin(x)) and wondered if there was a connection. There was. I started with the proposition that perhaps e^x=cis(x/i) and my calculator confirmed this. So I found the algebra behind it.
e^x=cis(x/i)
original equation. x/i=-xi, combining that step with expansion yields
e^x=cos(-xi)+i*sin(-xi)
I used basic knowledge about sin and cos to get
e^x=cos(xi)-i*sin(xi)
After that I eliminated the i with hyperbolic trig.
e^x=cosh(x)+sinh(x)
Using the definitions of these hyperbolic trig functions
e^x=(e^x+e^(-x))/2+(e^x-e^(-x))/2
Then simplify
e^x=e^x
so e^(pi*i)=cis(pi)=-1
[This message has been edited by groza528 (edited 03-01-2002 06:51 AM).] |
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ralphmerridew
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Thu Feb 28, 2002 5:59 pm Post subject: 16 |
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groza, your post uses circular reasoning, since the relations between cosh(x) and cos(ix) are proven using e^(ix) == cis(x).
The usual proofs are generally either:
1) Use various methods to show
code:
e^x = sum (n=0 to oo, x^n/n!)
sin(x) = sum(n=0 to oo, (-1)^n x^(2n+1) /(2n+1)!)
cos(x) = sum(n=0 to oo, (-1)^n x^(2n)/(2n)!)
Then compare the formulas for e^ix and cis(x)
2) Using differential equations:
y'' + y == 0, y(0)=1, y'(0)=i, y twice differentiable everywhere has a unique solution. But both y(x)=e^(ix) and y(x)=cis(x) satisfy it. Therefore both functions are equal everywhere.
(Edit to fix mistake noted by tigg)
[This message has been edited by ralphmerridew (edited 02-28-2002 03:24 PM).] |
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tigg
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Thu Feb 28, 2002 6:13 pm Post subject: 17 |
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| for 2), I think you want y'(0) = i |
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groza528
No Place Like Home
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Posted: Thu Feb 28, 2002 7:01 pm Post subject: 18 |
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| Thanks ralphmerridew, I didn't know that. I guess I did use circular reasoning. I just used my calculator as a reference that cos(i)=cosh(1) etc. |
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Jen Aside
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Thu Feb 28, 2002 7:21 pm Post subject: 19 |
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Pi and e... together, they make a tasty treat!  |
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Ghost Post
Icarian Member
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Posted: Fri Mar 01, 2002 7:54 pm Post subject: 20 |
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didnt einstein discover something like this.
it was apparantly his faviriote equation, because it relates two mysteries of maths, or something like that! |
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Sparticus
Spourk's Insignificant Other
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Posted: Mon Mar 04, 2002 7:39 pm Post subject: 21 |
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ralphmerridew: you're a C++ programmer, aren't you?
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"'Tis better to be thought an idiot than to open one's mouth and erase all doubt...No, my mouth was not open." |
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ralphmerridew
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Mon Mar 04, 2002 8:15 pm Post subject: 22 |
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| I am a programmer, but I prefer Java & C; I greatly dislike C++. Why do you ask? |
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groza528
No Place Like Home
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Posted: Mon Mar 04, 2002 8:26 pm Post subject: 23 |
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| I think it was the ==. I don't know much about programming, but I think == is used in C++ |
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CzarJ
Hot babe
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Posted: Mon Mar 04, 2002 11:12 pm Post subject: 24 |
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Well, yes, but surely in other languages as well.
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Unslumping yourself is not easily done. |
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ctrlaltdel
Member of the Daedalians
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Posted: Tue Mar 05, 2002 8:36 am Post subject: 25 |
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how does pi relate to i???
they are cousins, everybody knows that... |
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Chuck
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Tue Mar 05, 2002 3:36 pm Post subject: 26 |
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193 × e + 45 × pi = 666.
Well, it's close. |
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tigg
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Tue Mar 05, 2002 4:20 pm Post subject: 27 |
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| Chuck- you're a strange man.. |
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Lucky Wizard
Daedalian Member
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Posted: Thu Mar 07, 2002 12:20 am Post subject: 28 |
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I noticed today (while fooling with my calculator) that this is approximately true:
code:
pi 2
(e )-pi=(5 )-5
johnny, for the record, the e^(i*pi)=-1 thing was discovered by Euler, not Einstein. |
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