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An easier probability question on [0,1]

 
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Lepton
1:41+ Arse Scratcher



PostPosted: Mon Mar 28, 2011 5:39 am    Post subject: 1 Reply with quote

I don't know how to solve Laramie's problem, so I thought I'd share something sort of similar.

Consider the quadratic f(x) = x^2 + ax + b. a and b are random numbers between 0 and 1. What is the probability that f(x) will have at least one real root?

(note: this is a high-school level problem, so the precise definitions of "random", "probability", and so forth are naively straightforward... but I could post a more formal translation of this, if there is need for it)
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Zahariel
Daedalian Member



PostPosted: Mon Mar 28, 2011 8:07 pm    Post subject: 2 Reply with quote

f(x) has at least one real root if a^2 >= 4b. So we set up an integral: \int_{0}^{1/4} P(a^2 >= 4b) db = 1/4 - \int_{0}^{1/4) P(a^2 < 4b) db = 1/4 - \int_{0}^{1/4} P(a < 2 sqrt (b)) db = 1/4 - 2 \int_{0}^{1/4} sqrt(b) db = 1/4 - 2(1/12) = 1/12. Unless I did the calculus wrong, which is 100% possible as I'm not really much good at calculus.

(edit: I'm bad at math, thanks Lepton!)


Last edited by Zahariel on Wed Mar 30, 2011 5:49 pm; edited 1 time in total
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Zag
Tired of his old title



PostPosted: Mon Mar 28, 2011 9:11 pm    Post subject: 3 Reply with quote

Hah! I originally misread this problem as "probability that f(x) will have at least one rational root?" This is true only if SQR( a^2 - 4b ) is rational, and I had no idea how to calculate the chances of that.

Zahariel, your false modesty ill becomes you.
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ralphmerridew
Daedalian Member



PostPosted: Mon Mar 28, 2011 10:42 pm    Post subject: 4 Reply with quote

Probability of at least one rational root is 0.

For any rational x, the set of ordered pairs (a,b) such that x^2+ax+b will be a line segment in [0,1]x[0,1] (has zero measure in that space). The rationals are countable, and the intersection of a countable number of sets with zero measure has zero measure.
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Lepton*
Guest



PostPosted: Wed Mar 30, 2011 2:49 pm    Post subject: 5 Reply with quote

Looks good Zahariel, but your subtraction in the last step is wrong, I think; I find a probability of 1/12.
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mith
Pitbull of Truth



PostPosted: Wed Mar 30, 2011 4:16 pm    Post subject: 6 Reply with quote

Yeah, I get 1/12 as well.

Integrating with a as the independent variable cleans things up: The probability of a^2 <= 4b is the area under the curve b = a^2/4 on [0,1], which is 1^3/12 - 0^3/12.
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